(for KL Siew's Use Only)
Let me try to get a clearer picture from you. If a certain date was your rest day and also happened to be a public holiday, by law you should be getting a replacement for that public holiday. Am I right to say that they did not give any replacement for it but paid 2 days salary as holiday pay to you in the past and now they only wanted to pay one day salary? If that is the case, I think your employer might have a case. Why should you be entitled to 2 holiday pay? To me, you should only get either a day's holiday pay or a day's replacement. Have I got it right?